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J.R.

(A)

In Reply to: Actually posted by Bulkington on June 18, 2004 at 08:12:41:

Well perhaps that means that the KJV was heavily influenced by W.S.
But what it really means is that it was the language of the time, as
familiar to Shakespear as to the authors of the KJV, and as to the
endlessly churned out broadsides of the day. Regards,
J.R.

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I doubt it was influenced by WS - Bulkington 09:27:41 06/18/04 (0)
But certainly Modern English experienced an unparallelled flowering then. Just speculation on my part, but I wonder if Milton would have written Paradise Lost were it not for the King James Bible. As I recall, he had contemplated writing something Arthurian instead. I think it's no coincidence that the great writers (Chaucer, Shakespeare, Milton) steered clear of that mythos. Mallory? Spencer? No thanks.

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